Post by firstname.lastname@example.org
1) He didn't get the job at the store, at the urging of owner's son.
2) At the urging of owner's son, he didn't get the job at the store.
Are both grammatical?
Do they mean the same?
They are both grammatical (but add "the" before "owner's") and both
mean the same thing - probably.
But...what they mean requires inference from assumptions about the
context. So, in 2) the "grammatical" referent of "he" is "owner's son"
but that would not make sense in any likely context, so we infer that
"he" refers to a third person who is not mentioned before.
I thought the first comma might be unnecessary but without it there
could be ambiguity resolved only by emphasis and/or context.
"Why didn't he get the job?"
"He didn't get the job at the store at the urging of the owner's son
[who wanted it for himself)"
"Why did he get the job?"
He didn't get the job at the store at the urging of the owner's son.
[Rather, he got it because he was well-qualified.]"
Yes, at least in the sense that native speakers might very well say