since the investigation was made public

[arthurvv vart]

1) The congress has been in recess since this investigation was made public.

Could that sentence be used if the recess began before the investigation was made public?

I think '1' means that the recess began at the same time as the investigation was made public, but I am not sure. It has been in recess since BEFORE the investigation was made public, but could one use '1' in that case?

Gratefully,
Navi

[Eric Walker]

Post by arthurvv vart
1) The congress has been in recess since this investigation was made public.
Could that sentence be used if the recess began before the investigation was made public?
I think '1' means that the recess began at the same time as the
investigation was made public, but I am not sure. It has been in recess
since BEFORE the investigation was made public, but could one use '1' in
that case?

Possibly; but much clearer would be:

1b) The congress has been in recess since before this investigation was
made public.

[s***@my-deja.com]

Post by arthurvv vart
1) The congress has been in recess since this investigation was made public.
Could that sentence be used if the recess began before the investigation was made public?
I think '1' means that the recess began at the same time as the investigation was made public, but I am not sure. It has been in recess since BEFORE the investigation was made public, but could one use '1' in that case?

In theory the sentence would still be correct if only a part of the recess took place after publication,
but if that were the case a different form of words would have been used.
So, my interpretation of the order of events is:-
1 Start of recess
2 Publication
with the result that the congress had no opportunity to discuss the report.