Post by Tough Guy no. 1265I was always taught that a syllable is a vowel sound.
Yes. But a sound (a phone) is not a phoneme. A phoneme
is an abstraction of sounds. Sometimes, two sounds might
be represented by one phoneme.
For example, in the World-Wide Web, one can find:
»structure on the basis of the phonetic syllable
(or chest pulse) or the phonemic syllable (unit of
phonemic significance),«
And also:
»A short syllable has one mora: a long syllable
contains two moræ.«
So, some might say that /ni:l/ is one long syllable
with two moræ. However, the term »mora« is used more
with Japanese than with English.) It might have two
»chest pulses«, but only one »unit of phonemic significance«.
This quotation from the famous »Wikipedia« online
encyclopedia confirms my assumption about phonemes
versus phones:
»In most dialects of the English language, for instance
British Received Pronunciation and General American,
there is complementary allophonic vowel length. Vowel
phonemes are realized as longer vowel allophones before
voiced consonant phonemes in the coda of a syllable,
meaning vowels are lengthened before a voiced consonant.
For example, the vowel phoneme /æ/ in /'bæt/ 'bat' is
realized as a short allophone [æ] in ['bæt], because the
/t/ phoneme is voiceless, while the same vowel /æ/
phoneme in /'bæd/ 'bad' is realized as a slightly long
allophone (which could be transcribed as ['bæ?d]),
because /d/ is voiced.«
because an »allophone« is just a »phone« that can be a
representation of a phoneme. For example, the phoneme /i:/
can have two allophones: [i:] (short) and [i:@] (long, two
»moræ« one might say).