Discussion:
Buoy - 'boy' (BrE) v boo-ee (AmE)
(too old to reply)
occam
2023-08-21 17:38:26 UTC
Permalink
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.

Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.

Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Bertel Lund Hansen
2023-08-21 17:59:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by occam
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
It's funny to hear the other pronunciation, because apart from the
English rounding of the sounds, it's pretty much the Danish
pronunciation. In principle it ought to have two syllables, but nobody
speaks more than one.
--
Bertel, Denmark
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-21 18:12:16 UTC
Permalink
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
--
Jerry Friedman
bil...@shaw.ca
2023-08-22 19:18:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.

I live with it.

bill
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 19:42:59 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all.
No negative connotations, a 'boei' is a sign
that shows where it is safe to go,
and it may be a life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.

Jan
bil...@shaw.ca
2023-08-25 21:55:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all.
No negative connotations, a 'boei' is a sign
that shows where it is safe to go,
and it may be a life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.
I know what it means. The only problem I have with it is convincing English-speaking
Canadians that I know how to spell and pronounce it.

bill
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 09:17:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all.
No negative connotations, a 'boei' is a sign
that shows where it is safe to go,
and it may be a life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.
I know what it means. The only problem I have with it is convincing
English-speaking Canadians that I know how to spell and pronounce it.
You must dislike the Dutch pronunciation Boei-uh.
(for the new figuratative word pronunciation)
Perhaps it didn't exist in your time,

Jan

PS For our Anglosaxon friends: there are many different kinds of
tethered floating things.
The 'boei' is the biggest kind of them all.
It comes equipped wit a radar reflector and a (flashing) light,
and they need regular maintenance.
Big enough to be visible in the distance,
even from the bridge of a supertanker.
A smaller one is a 'ton', (English 'barrel')
charles
2023-08-26 09:45:02 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in
pronunciation between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans
was invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it
is pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly
enough, in Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it
two syllables, pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all. No negative connotations, a
'boei' is a sign that shows where it is safe to go, and it may be a
life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.
I know what it means. The only problem I have with it is convincing
English-speaking Canadians that I know how to spell and pronounce it.
You must dislike the Dutch pronunciation Boei-uh. (for the new
figuratative word pronunciation) Perhaps it didn't exist in your time,
Jan
PS For our Anglosaxon friends: there are many different kinds of tethered
floating things. The 'boei' is the biggest kind of them all. It comes
equipped wit a radar reflector and a (flashing) light, and they need
regular maintenance. Big enough to be visible in the distance, even from
the bridge of a supertanker. A smaller one is a 'ton', (English 'barrel')
in English the barrel is a 'tun'.
--
from KT24 in Surrey, England - sent from my RISC OS 4té
"I'd rather die of exhaustion than die of boredom" Thomas Carlyle
Bertel Lund Hansen
2023-08-26 11:29:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by charles
PS For our Anglosaxon friends: there are many different kinds of tethered
floating things. The 'boei' is the biggest kind of them all. It comes
equipped wit a radar reflector and a (flashing) light, and they need
regular maintenance. Big enough to be visible in the distance, even from
the bridge of a supertanker. A smaller one is a 'ton', (English 'barrel')
in English the barrel is a 'tun'.
Auf Danish: tønde
--
Bertel, Denmark
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 11:47:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by charles
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in
pronunciation between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans
was invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it
is pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly
enough, in Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it
two syllables, pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all. No negative connotations, a
'boei' is a sign that shows where it is safe to go, and it may be a
life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.
I know what it means. The only problem I have with it is convincing
English-speaking Canadians that I know how to spell and pronounce it.
You must dislike the Dutch pronunciation Boei-uh. (for the new
figuratative word pronunciation) Perhaps it didn't exist in your time,
Jan
PS For our Anglosaxon friends: there are many different kinds of tethered
floating things. The 'boei' is the biggest kind of them all. It comes
equipped wit a radar reflector and a (flashing) light, and they need
regular maintenance. Big enough to be visible in the distance, even from
the bridge of a supertanker. A smaller one is a 'ton', (English 'barrel')
in English the barrel is a 'tun'.
Yes, I know, but afaik 'tun' is not used for small buoy in English.
In Dutch it is. The line of 'buoys' by the edge of the deeper water
is called 'de betonning'.

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 14:24:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
A smaller one is a 'ton', (English 'barrel')
A tun is a large cask.
bil...@shaw.ca
2023-08-26 20:26:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
It is not an unusual name family at all.
No negative connotations, a 'boei' is a sign
that shows where it is safe to go,
and it may be a life saver, as in 'reddingsboei'.
I know what it means. The only problem I have with it is convincing
English-speaking Canadians that I know how to spell and pronounce it.
You must dislike the Dutch pronunciation Boei-uh.
(for the new figuratative word pronunciation)
Perhaps it didn't exist in your time,
I don't think it did.My family moved to Canada in 1959,
and I spent the last few months of my Grade 5 year at the back of
a classroom in Nelson, B.C., with a Grade 1 reader on my desk.

bill
Bertel Lund Hansen
2023-08-22 19:59:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
Colin Powell was given his first name with first syllable as in
"culture". For some reason many people - if I remember right, even his
school mates - pronounced it differently. He became so tired of
correcting it that he stopped and accepted the other pronunciation.
--
Bertel, Denmark
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 21:28:56 UTC
Permalink
Post by Bertel Lund Hansen
Post by ***@shaw.ca
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
Colin Powell was given his first name with first syllable as in
"culture". For some reason many people - if I remember right, even his
school mates - pronounced it differently. He became so tired of
correcting it that he stopped and accepted the other pronunciation.
"Colin" is normally pronounced with [a] in the first syllable. He, however,
is pronounced the same as "colon" with [o].
Bertel Lund Hansen
2023-08-22 20:04:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
I just remember:

When I was a child, my name was often pronounced wrong if I had to
explain it to someone (authorities e.g.). Either they would insert an i
making it "Bertil" in spite of us then having a couple of famous people
with the same name. You may know Bertel Thorvaldsen. Or they would write
"Berthel".

The funny thing about "Bertil", which irritated me every time, is that
it is the normal version of the name in Sweden, and if I were to live
there, I would happily accept that pronunciation.

I don't know why the mistakes stopped. It's been decades since it's been
a problem.

There are only about 400 Danes named Bertel, so it's a rare name.
--
Bertel, Denmark
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 21:27:34 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
Do you know how to pronounce the MD boeye? JJ clearly doesn't but
prefers to delete the query than to say so.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-23 09:08:06 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
Do you know how to pronounce the MD boeye? JJ clearly doesn't but
prefers to delete the query than to say so.
Huh? Modern Dutch does pronounce those medieval extra e,
-when reading old texts-, for a stage performance for example.

From surviving poetry is is almost certain
that they did the same seven hundred years ago,
for it wouldn't scan otherwise.

I hadn't realised that you would get this worked up
about a triviality,

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-23 15:49:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans was
invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
My (Dutch) family name is Boei. One of its meanings is buoy, and it is
pronounced in Dutch as one syllable, rhyming with buoy. Oddly enough, in
Canadian English, nearly everyone insists in giving it two syllables,
pronouncing it Boo-wee.
I live with it.
Do you know how to pronounce the MD boeye? JJ clearly doesn't but
prefers to delete the query than to say so.
Huh? Modern Dutch does pronounce those medieval extra e,
-when reading old texts-, for a stage performance for example.
MIDDLE DUTCH!!!! And I spelled out the standard abbreviation when
I asked. "Modern Dutch" would be ModD.
Post by J. J. Lodder
From surviving poetry is is almost certain
that they did the same seven hundred years ago,
for it wouldn't scan otherwise.
I hadn't realised that you would get this worked up
about a triviality,
Some things linguistic are not trivial.
HVS
2023-08-23 15:47:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback
a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also
sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
I suspect the two-syllable pronunciation used by many Americans
was invented to distinguish it from "boy" (ruining some puns).
A pleasing example of one of the puns:

In the summer of 1982 I lived for a month or two in a fishing
village, a few doors down from a pub called "The Black Buoy", with a
sign to match the nautical name.

According to local histories, it had originally been "The Black
Boy" - "possibly" after a nickname of Charles II which referred to
his black hair and dark complexion, or (again "possibly") a black
servant or black-coated coach boy.

The name was changed in 1912. It's not clear why -- given the date,
I'd be astounded if it was a PC thing -- but it struck me as clever
use of a homonym.
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-21 18:42:39 UTC
Permalink
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.

This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Ross Clark
2023-08-22 01:50:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.

For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.

For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.

OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi

Also from OED Online, an etymological note to make this all clear:

Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.

15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-22 03:50:59 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.

(I copied those backslashes from Merriam-Webster.)

http://triggs.djvu.org/century-dictionary.com/djvu2jpgframes.php?volno=01&page=0722&query=buoy
--
Jerry Friedman
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 09:54:08 UTC
Permalink
Jerry Friedman <***@gmail.com> wrote:
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)

Jan
phil
2023-08-22 11:07:30 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
Jan
Much apparent in the coverage of the war in Oekraine, where Poetin and
Sjojgoe are oft quoted, and the fighting is intense around Bachmoet.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 11:34:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by phil
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
Much apparent in the coverage of the war in Oekraine, where Poetin and
Sjojgoe are oft quoted, and the fighting is intense around Bachmoet.
Yes, and not just for Dutch. (and also for ch-> kh, and others)

The quoted transliteration of Russian words and names
is often a dead give-away of the national origin of the author.
And why not?
Why should the whole world use English transliterations?

As for Dutch, there are different style guides,
and usage differs somewhat,

Jan
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-22 12:20:42 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by phil
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
Much apparent in the coverage of the war in Oekraine, where Poetin and
Sjojgoe are oft quoted, and the fighting is intense around Bachmoet.
Yes, and not just for Dutch. (and also for ch-> kh, and others)
The quoted transliteration of Russian words and names
is often a dead give-away of the national origin of the author.
Khrushchov was a notable example. Most British news sources had
Khrushchev or Khruschev. German had Chruschtschow, French had
Khrouchtchev, Dutch had Chroesjtsjov (that's what Wikipedia says, but
you may know better), Hungarian had Hruscsov (Wikipedia again), Spanish
had Jrushchov, Italian had Chruščëv (Wikipedia again, but I'm
suspicious as Italian doesn't usually have š, č or ë). German is the
winner for needing a series of seven letters to represent one letter
(щ) of Russian.
Post by J. J. Lodder
And why not?
Why should the whole world use English transliterations?
Because the whole world is supposed to follow USA preferences in all matters.
Post by J. J. Lodder
As for Dutch, there are different style guides,
and usage differs somewhat,
Jan
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
Silvano
2023-08-22 13:27:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Khrushchov was a notable example. Most British news sources had
Khrushchev or Khruschev. German had Chruschtschow, French had
Khrouchtchev, Dutch had Chroesjtsjov (that's what Wikipedia says, but
you may know better), Hungarian had Hruscsov (Wikipedia again), Spanish
had Jrushchov, Italian had Chruščëv (Wikipedia again, but I'm suspicious
as Italian doesn't usually have š, č or ë). German is the winner for
needing a series of seven letters to represent one letter (щ) of Russian.
Your suspicion is correct, as the first few lines of the Italian
Wikipedia confirm: ... "spesso trascritto in italiano come Krusciov".
Actually, Italian newspapers and magazines did not _often_ write that
name as Krusciov, as Wikipedia states. They _always_ wrote Krusciov,
like they _never_ wrote the correct Wałęsa. It is always Walesa.

Chruščëv is the scientific transliteration of Cyrillic, often quite
different from its transcription and not dependent on the writer's language.
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 14:56:04 UTC
Permalink
Post by Silvano
Chruščëv is the scientific transliteration of Cyrillic, often quite
different from its transcription and not dependent on the writer's language.
Thee are many, many "scientific" transliterations of Cyrillic. Americans
need to learn the cumbrsome (but accurate) Library of Congress system,
since it is used in every library that makes use of the national resources.
Here are three of them:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_transliteration_of_Cyrillic

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ALA-LC_romanization_for_Russian

It may have been taken over into OCLC / WorldCat, because the huge
database already existed.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 16:28:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Silvano
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Khrushchov was a notable example. Most British news sources had
Khrushchev or Khruschev. German had Chruschtschow, French had
Khrouchtchev, Dutch had Chroesjtsjov (that's what Wikipedia says, but
you may know better), Hungarian had Hruscsov (Wikipedia again), Spanish
had Jrushchov, Italian had Chru??ëv (Wikipedia again, but I'm suspicious
as Italian doesn't usually have ?, ? or ë). German is the winner for
needing a series of seven letters to represent one letter (?) of Russian.
Your suspicion is correct, as the first few lines of the Italian
Wikipedia confirm: ... "spesso trascritto in italiano come Krusciov".
Actually, Italian newspapers and magazines did not _often_ write that
name as Krusciov, as Wikipedia states. They _always_ wrote Krusciov,
like they _never_ wrote the correct Wa??sa. It is always Walesa.
Chru??ëv is the scientific transliteration of Cyrillic, often quite
different from its transcription and not dependent on the writer's language.
How can there possibly such a thing as
'a scientifically correct transliteration'?
(independent of the writer's language???)

Jan
Silvano
2023-08-22 17:33:07 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Chruščëv (s and c both with a hacek, for those who like you do not use UTF-8) is the scientific transliteration of Cyrillic, often quite
different from its transcription and not dependent on the writer's language.
How can there possibly such a thing as
'a scientifically correct transliteration'?
(independent of the writer's language???)
Please read
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_transliteration_of_Cyrillic>
The main idea of a transliteration, as opposed to a transcription, is
precisely that people using any language written with the Latin alphabet
should get the same writing in Cyrillic after back-translation.

My niece works as a librarian at a university. She could hold a lecture
about their problems with book titles in non-Latin alphabets or ideograms.

If you don't like the idea or the wording, please complain to Wikipedia.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 18:51:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Silvano
Post by J. J. Lodder
Chru??ëv (s and c both with a hacek, for those who like you do not use
UTF-8) is the scientific transliteration of Cyrillic, often quite
different from its transcription and not dependent on the writer's language.
How can there possibly such a thing as
'a scientifically correct transliteration'?
(independent of the writer's language???)
Please read
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_transliteration_of_Cyrillic>
The main idea of a transliteration, as opposed to a transcription, is
precisely that people using any language written with the Latin alphabet
should get the same writing in Cyrillic after back-translation.
My niece works as a librarian at a university. She could hold a lecture
about their problems with book titles in non-Latin alphabets or ideograms.
If you don't like the idea or the wording, please complain to Wikipedia.
Why? It is just another system, and Wikipedia explicitly says so,
It just has a more pretentious name,

Jan
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-22 13:51:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by phil
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
Much apparent in the coverage of the war in Oekraine, where Poetin and
Sjojgoe are oft quoted, and the fighting is intense around Bachmoet.
Yes, and not just for Dutch. (and also for ch-> kh, and others)
The quoted transliteration of Russian words and names
is often a dead give-away of the national origin of the author.
Khrushchov was a notable example. Most British news sources had
Khrushchev or Khruschev. German had Chruschtschow, French had
Khrouchtchev, Dutch had Chroesjtsjov (that's what Wikipedia says, but
you may know better), Hungarian had Hruscsov (Wikipedia again), Spanish
had Jrushchov, Italian had Chruščëv (Wikipedia again, but I'm
suspicious as Italian doesn't usually have š, č or ë). German is the
winner for needing a series of seven letters to represent one letter
(щ) of Russian.
Post by J. J. Lodder
And why not?
Why should the whole world use English transliterations?
Because the whole world is supposed to follow USA preferences in all matters.
...

Keep going. I think you and Jan have missed a few pieces of straw.
--
Jerry Friedman
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 14:48:15 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
The quoted transliteration of Russian words and names
is often a dead give-away of the national origin of the author.
Khrushchov was a notable example. Most British news sources had
Khrushchev or Khruschev. German had Chruschtschow, French had
Khrouchtchev, Dutch had Chroesjtsjov (that's what Wikipedia says, but
you may know better), Hungarian had Hruscsov (Wikipedia again), Spanish
had Jrushchov, Italian had Chruščëv (Wikipedia again, but I'm
suspicious as Italian doesn't usually have š, č or ë). German is the
winner for needing a series of seven letters to represent one letter
(щ) of Russian.
Some of those transliterated the spelling, some transcribed the sound.
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-22 13:48:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Thanks, but as I said, the symbol in the second pronunciation represents
the vowel of "boat", not that of "boot".
Post by J. J. Lodder
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
At first I thought you meant that Dutch usage differs from that of
other languages, but once I noticed that didn't sense, I realized you
meant that some Dutch people use a different method.
--
Jerry Friedman
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 16:28:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Thanks, but as I said, the symbol in the second pronunciation represents
the vowel of "boat", not that of "boot".
The sound of the 'oe' Dutch 'Boei' is definitely much more
like the sound of the oo' in English 'boot', not like English 'boat'.
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by J. J. Lodder
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
At first I thought you meant that Dutch usage differs from that of
other languages, but once I noticed that didn't sense, I realized you
meant that some Dutch people use a different method.
Yes, there are different style guides,
for Dutch news media for example,
with somewhat different recommendations on transliteration,

Jan
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-22 16:41:55 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by J. J. Lodder
[-]
Post by Jerry Friedman
On American pronunciation, the /Century Dictionary/ (1889-1891) gives
two pronunciations: \boi\ [= boy] and the same with a macron over the o,
which indicates the vowel of "boat", but the word is still monosyllabic.
(The dictionary separates syllables with hyphens, except that after an
accented syllable a straight apostrophe replaces the hyphen.) I don't
know what the second pronunciation is supposed to represent.
The Dutch 'oe' doesn't carry over into other languages.
It is comparable in pronunciation to that of 'boot' in the English,
and to the u (without umlaut!) in German.
Thanks, but as I said, the symbol in the second pronunciation represents
the vowel of "boat", not that of "boot".
The sound of the 'oe' Dutch 'Boei' is definitely much more
like the sound of the oo' in English 'boot', not like English 'boat'.
That's why your comments about Dutch "oe" were irrelevant to the paragraph
of mine that you quoted.
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by J. J. Lodder
Conversely the U in other languages is sometimes transcribed as oe,
like in Uganda -> Oeganda, (but Dutch usage differs on that)
At first I thought you meant that Dutch usage differs from that of
other languages, but once I noticed that didn't
make
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Jerry Friedman
sense, I realized you
meant that some Dutch people use a different method.
Yes, there are different style guides,
for Dutch news media for example,
with somewhat different recommendations on transliteration,
"Varies", which I only thought of now, would have been clearer to me than
"differs".
--
Jerry Friedman
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 14:42:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Ross Clark
2023-08-22 20:43:56 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 21:32:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost, in the periphery, the monosyllable
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Ross Clark
2023-08-22 23:46:26 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well, you
have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest (original)";
then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest" is more
innovative than losing one of the others.

in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
Three pronunciations given:
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi

followed by

277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)

So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.

https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y

And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 00:35:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the
presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well, you
have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest (original)";
then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest" is more
innovative than losing one of the others.
in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi
followed by
277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)
So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.
https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
Just a little further -- managed to get into Walker's _Critical
Pronouncing Dictionary_ (1791).

https://books.google.co.nz/books/about/A_Critical_Pronouncing_Dictionary_and_Ex.html?id=DaURAAAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y

His entry for "buoy" gives the pronunciation <buoe>, with a tiny
numeral over each vowel. These diacritics (which I have mentioned before
here) are almost unreadable, but the best I can guess is that it means
something like [bʊɔi].

Fortunately on p.39 he has a note about this very word which is much
clearer:

"UOY: This triphthong is found only in the word buoy, pronounced as if
written _bwoy_, but too often exactly like _boy_. This, however, is an
impropriety which ought to be avoided by correct speakers."

So the two common BrE pronunciations in the late 18th century were, as
OED has them today, "bwoy" and "boy". But Walker disapproved of the latter.
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 01:15:27 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the
presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well,
you have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest
(original)"; then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest"
is more innovative than losing one of the others.
in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi
followed by
277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)
So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.
https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they
would have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than
succumbed to some modern affectation.
Just a little further -- managed to get into Walker's _Critical
Pronouncing Dictionary_ (1791).
https://books.google.co.nz/books/about/A_Critical_Pronouncing_Dictionary_and_Ex.html?id=DaURAAAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y
His entry for "buoy" gives the pronunciation  <buoe>, with a tiny
numeral over each vowel. These diacritics (which I have mentioned before
here) are almost unreadable, but the best I can guess is that it means
something like [bʊɔi].
Fortunately on p.39 he has a note about this very word which is much
"UOY: This triphthong is found only in the word buoy, pronounced as if
written _bwoy_, but too often exactly like _boy_. This, however, is an
impropriety which ought to be avoided by correct speakers."
So the two common BrE pronunciations in the late 18th century were, as
OED has them today, "bwoy" and "boy". But Walker disapproved of the latter.
Johnson didn't! Johnson's dictionary (1755) has only occasional notes on
pronunciation. For the noun "buoy" he gives only etymological notes
(French and Spanish); but the verb, he says, is derived from the noun,
and "the u is silent in both". I.e. "boy".
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 10:30:04 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well,
you have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest
(original)"; then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest"
is more innovative than losing one of the others.
in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi
followed by
277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)
So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.
https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they
would have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than
succumbed to some modern affectation.
Just a little further -- managed to get into Walker's _Critical
Pronouncing Dictionary_ (1791).
https://books.google.co.nz/books/about/A_Critical_Pronouncing_Dictionary_and_Ex.html?id=DaURAAAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y
His entry for "buoy" gives the pronunciation  <buoe>, with a tiny
numeral over each vowel. These diacritics (which I have mentioned
before here) are almost unreadable, but the best I can guess is that
it means something like [bʊɔi].
Fortunately on p.39 he has a note about this very word which is much
"UOY: This triphthong is found only in the word buoy, pronounced as if
written _bwoy_, but too often exactly like _boy_. This, however, is an
impropriety which ought to be avoided by correct speakers."
So the two common BrE pronunciations in the late 18th century were, as
OED has them today, "bwoy" and "boy". But Walker disapproved of the latter.
Johnson didn't! Johnson's dictionary (1755) has only occasional notes on
pronunciation. For the noun "buoy" he gives only etymological notes
(French and Spanish); but the verb, he says, is derived from the noun,
and "the u is silent in both". I.e. "boy".
Sorry, misquoted from memory. Johnson says "mute", not "silent".
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-23 15:47:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well,
you have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest
(original)"; then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest"
is more innovative than losing one of the others.
in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi
followed by
277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)
So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.
https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they
would have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than
succumbed to some modern affectation.
Just a little further -- managed to get into Walker's _Critical
Pronouncing Dictionary_ (1791).
https://books.google.co.nz/books/about/A_Critical_Pronouncing_Dictionary_and_Ex.html?id=DaURAAAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y
His entry for "buoy" gives the pronunciation <buoe>, with a tiny
numeral over each vowel. These diacritics (which I have mentioned before
here) are almost unreadable, but the best I can guess is that it means
something like [bʊɔi].
Fortunately on p.39 he has a note about this very word which is much
"UOY: This triphthong is found only in the word buoy, pronounced as if
written _bwoy_, but too often exactly like _boy_. This, however, is an
impropriety which ought to be avoided by correct speakers."
So the two common BrE pronunciations in the late 18th century were, as
OED has them today, "bwoy" and "boy". But Walker disapproved of the latter.
Johnson didn't! Johnson's dictionary (1755) has only occasional notes on
pronunciation. For the noun "buoy" he gives only etymological notes
(French and Spanish); but the verb, he says, is derived from the noun,
and "the u is silent in both". I.e. "boy".
Just like a horse's knee. Did he hang with sailors a lot?
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-23 15:47:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
Can't resist an invitation like that, though I reject the presupposition
that BrE has altered it. I find no basis for a trans-Atlantic slanging
match.
For BrE, Jones has only bɔi [= boy] from 1917 to the present.
For AmE, Kenyon & Knott (1944) have [= boy], followed by bu·ɪ [= boo-ee]
Jones XVIII (2011) has the same, though the latter is notated bu:.i.
OED Online has a "new look" as of about a week ago, which I am just
getting used to. If I read their array of pronunciations aright, it has
UK: bɔi, bwɔi
US: bui, bɔi
Either (i) a borrowing from French. Or (ii) a borrowing from Dutch.
15th cent. boye corresponds to Old French boye (Diez), boyee
(Palsgrave), modern French bouée, Norman boie (Littré), Spanish boya,
Portuguese boia ‘buoy’; Dutch boei, Middle Dutch boeie ‘buoy’, and
‘fetter’; the same word as Old French boie, buie, boe, bue, beue,
Provençal boia, Old Spanish boya fetter, chain < Latin boia halter,
fetter (compare boy n.2); applied to a buoy because of its being
fettered to a spot.
It is not clear whether the English was originally from Old French, or
Middle Dutch. The pronunciation /bwɔɪ/ , indicated already in Hakluyt,
is recognized by all orthoepists British and American; but /bɔɪ/ is
universal among sailors, and now prevalent in England: Annandale's
Imperial Dictionary, 1885, has /bɔɪ/ or /bwɔɪ/ , Cassell's Encyclopædic
Dict., 1879, says ‘u silent’. Some orthoepists give /buɪ/ .
There ya go. "All orthoepists" make it disyllabic as far back as Hakluyt
(16th c.). Being a nautical term, it would have come with the first
adventurers and settlers in the New World, and so its prevalence in
AmE is merely yet another example of the conservative periphery vs.
the innovative center. The monosyllabification seems to have taken
hold in the later 19th century,
Try reading it again. The orthoepists and Hakluyt attest to a
monosyllabic pronunciation /bwɔɪ/, which apparently survives only in UK.
That is clearly a triphthong. If you want to call that one syllable,
well, you have a funny triphthong.
If you think "triphthong" is incompatible with "monosyllabic", well, you
have a funny definition of "triphthong".
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by Ross Clark
Spellings attested from the 1500s suggest both "boy" <boy, boye> and
"boo-ee" <buie, buy>. Most likely all three existed at this period, and
were eventually carried to America. Since then, in both dialect areas,
one of the three has been lost.
In the center, the earliest (original) one is lost,
You're really desperate to score your little points, aren't you?
You assume (on no evidence) that "boo-ee" is the "earliest (original)";
then I suppose you will argue that losing the "earliest" is more
innovative than losing one of the others.
in the periphery, the monosyllable
Post by Peter T. Daniels
was perhaps imitated from BrE later on.
Again, no evidence for "imitated" (whatever you mean by that) or "later on".
--------------
But I thought Webster's New International Dictionary (1909) deserved
another of its rare outings, just to see what it made of this word.
boi;
boo'ĭ [with ligature over the oo's];
bwoi
followed by
277: the first is the universal nautical pronunciation and has now
generally prevailed over the others
------------------------
The "nautical" note agrees well with OED's observation about sailors
(probably dating from 1888).
(277 turns out to be a reference to a table showing pronunciations in
other dictionaries, which adds nothing of interest.)
So we have /bwoi/ attested in AmE. In fact, in Webster's _An American
Dictionary of the English Language_ (1830), (bwoy) is the only
pronunciation given.
https://books.google.co.nz/books?id=EohAAAAAYAAJ&newbks=0&hl=en&redir_esc=y
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
Just a little further -- managed to get into Walker's _Critical
Pronouncing Dictionary_ (1791).
https://books.google.co.nz/books/about/A_Critical_Pronouncing_Dictionary_and_Ex.html?id=DaURAAAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y
His entry for "buoy" gives the pronunciation <buoe>, with a tiny
numeral over each vowel. These diacritics (which I have mentioned before
here) are almost unreadable, but the best I can guess is that it means
something like [bʊɔi].
Fortunately on p.39 he has a note about this very word which is much
"UOY: This triphthong is found only in the word buoy, pronounced as if
written _bwoy_, but too often exactly like _boy_. This, however, is an
impropriety which ought to be avoided by correct speakers."
So the two common BrE pronunciations in the late 18th century were, as
OED has them today, "bwoy" and "boy". But Walker disapproved of the latter.
Because, like orthoepists generally, he preferred the traditional to the
innovative.

Yu rally ought to do some trimming.
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-23 03:20:03 UTC
Permalink
On Tuesday, August 22, 2023 at 5:46:39 PM UTC-6, Ross Clark wrote:
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
--
Jerry Friedman
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 10:28:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations. "Fore-castle" and
"boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.

In the case of "buoy", I think given Latin boia, Spanish boya, French
boye, that "=boy" is exactly the form you would expect if the word was
borrowed from French. The sailors have simply inherited that without
material alteration.

Things are complicated by the fact that (it seems) the Dutch word was
also borrowed at about the same time. The Dutch could, I think, account
for the "boo-ee" pronunciation, and for the now-standard spelling. As
for "bwoy", it could be a spelling pronunciation of <buoy>, perhaps
motivated by a distaste for homophony.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-23 11:36:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are
the people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l"
(topgallant sail), etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations.
It's what you get when you try to make yourself heard,
through a speaking trumpet in a gale.
Post by Ross Clark
"Fore-castle" and boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
But the original was by kings and knights, not sailors.
When medieval English kings went to war at sea
they commandeered some merchant ships,
and they ordered temporary wooden 'castles' built on top.
One fore, one after, complete with crenelations.
<Loading Image...>

In battle you took the castles,
by boarding and throwing the opposition over board,

Jan
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 20:36:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are
the people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l"
(topgallant sail), etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations.
It's what you get when you try to make yourself heard,
through a speaking trumpet in a gale.
Post by Ross Clark
"Fore-castle" and boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
But the original was by kings and knights, not sailors.
When medieval English kings went to war at sea
they commandeered some merchant ships,
and they ordered temporary wooden 'castles' built on top.
One fore, one after, complete with crenelations.
<https://www.britishbattles.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/06/4-english-cog.jpg>
In battle you took the castles,
by boarding and throwing the opposition over board,
Jan
I'm not questioning the etymology of these words. But they have
undergone sound changes in the centuries since they were formed, in the
community within which they were regularly used and transmitted.
These are perfectly normal sound changes, not the result of special
stupidity or slovenly pronunciation by sailors.

The spelling has not followed the pronunciation, of course. Anyone who
says "fore-castle" or "boat-swain" today has probably learned the word
from a book.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-25 12:17:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are
the people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l"
(topgallant sail), etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations.
It's what you get when you try to make yourself heard,
through a speaking trumpet in a gale.
Post by Ross Clark
"Fore-castle" and boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
But the original was by kings and knights, not sailors.
When medieval English kings went to war at sea
they commandeered some merchant ships,
and they ordered temporary wooden 'castles' built on top.
One fore, one after, complete with crenelations.
<https://www.britishbattles.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/06/4-english-cog.jpg
In battle you took the castles,
by boarding and throwing the opposition over board,
Jan
I'm not questioning the etymology of these words. But they have
undergone sound changes in the centuries since they were formed, in the
community within which they were regularly used and transmitted.
These are perfectly normal sound changes, not the result of special
stupidity or slovenly pronunciation by sailors.
The spelling has not followed the pronunciation, of course. Anyone who
says "fore-castle" or "boat-swain" today has probably learned the word
from a book.
Or he says 'bosun' and fo'c'sle because he learned it from a book.

Beat to quarters!

Jan
Sam Plusnet
2023-08-25 19:31:07 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are
the people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l"
(topgallant sail), etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations.
It's what you get when you try to make yourself heard,
through a speaking trumpet in a gale.
Post by Ross Clark
"Fore-castle" and boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
But the original was by kings and knights, not sailors.
When medieval English kings went to war at sea
they commandeered some merchant ships,
and they ordered temporary wooden 'castles' built on top.
One fore, one after, complete with crenelations.
<https://www.britishbattles.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/06/4-english-cog.jpg
In battle you took the castles,
by boarding and throwing the opposition over board,
Jan
I'm not questioning the etymology of these words. But they have
undergone sound changes in the centuries since they were formed, in the
community within which they were regularly used and transmitted.
These are perfectly normal sound changes, not the result of special
stupidity or slovenly pronunciation by sailors.
The spelling has not followed the pronunciation, of course. Anyone who
says "fore-castle" or "boat-swain" today has probably learned the word
from a book.
Or he says 'bosun' and fo'c'sle because he learned it from a book.
Beat to quarters!
The whole dollar, or I'm not going to play.
--
Sam Plusnet
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-25 20:07:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Sam Plusnet
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are
the people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l"
(topgallant sail), etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations.
It's what you get when you try to make yourself heard,
through a speaking trumpet in a gale.
Post by Ross Clark
"Fore-castle" and boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
But the original was by kings and knights, not sailors.
When medieval English kings went to war at sea
they commandeered some merchant ships,
and they ordered temporary wooden 'castles' built on top.
One fore, one after, complete with crenelations.
<https://www.britishbattles.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/06/4-english-cog.j
pg
Post by Sam Plusnet
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Ross Clark
Post by J. J. Lodder
In battle you took the castles,
by boarding and throwing the opposition over board,
Jan
I'm not questioning the etymology of these words. But they have
undergone sound changes in the centuries since they were formed, in the
community within which they were regularly used and transmitted.
These are perfectly normal sound changes, not the result of special
stupidity or slovenly pronunciation by sailors.
The spelling has not followed the pronunciation, of course. Anyone who
says "fore-castle" or "boat-swain" today has probably learned the word
from a book.
Or he says 'bosun' and fo'c'sle because he learned it from a book.
Beat to quarters!
The whole dollar, or I'm not going to play.
The bosun's starter will get you started,
on pain of, oh well, pain,

Jan
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-23 18:46:34 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations. "Fore-castle" and
"boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
I consider them the correct pronunciations too, and I was taught (by
/Highlights for Children/, if memory serves) that the one correct pronunciation
of "buoy" was that of "boy". But you said sailors would have carried on a
traditional pronunciation, and I'm saying that far from it, they've drastically
changed the pronunciation of several words.
Post by Ross Clark
In the case of "buoy", I think given Latin boia, Spanish boya, French
boye, that "=boy" is exactly the form you would expect if the word was
borrowed from French. The sailors have simply inherited that without
material alteration.
I tried to find out when French <oy> started to be pronounced with a /w/,
but I failed. I'll take your word that it was after "boye" showed up in English.
Post by Ross Clark
Things are complicated by the fact that (it seems) the Dutch word was
also borrowed at about the same time. The Dutch could, I think, account
for the "boo-ee" pronunciation, and for the now-standard spelling. As
for "bwoy", it could be a spelling pronunciation of <buoy>, perhaps
motivated by a distaste for homophony.
Speaking of which, M-W gives "buoy" as "ˈbü-ē, ˈbȯi" ("booee, boy") but
"buoyant" as "ˈbȯi-ənt, ˈbü-yənt" ("boyant, booyant"). I'd say my experience
agrees that "booee" and "boyant" are the more common pronunciations
in the U.S. That's consistent with a distaste for homophony.

Another possible story is that "booee" disappeared for a couple centuries
and was revived as a spelling pronunciation and to avoid homophony. That's
one step more complicated, but it explains why we haven't seen any evidence
for a "booee" pronunciation from 1600 to the 20th century. Of course such
evidence might exist. (The only search I tried was for "buoy 'pronounced it'".)
Another argument against that story is that if a spelling pronunciation were
invented out of nothing, we might expect it to start with /bju/ like "Buick",
"bucolic", etc.
--
Jerry Friedman
Ross Clark
2023-08-23 20:54:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations. "Fore-castle" and
"boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
I consider them the correct pronunciations too, and I was taught (by
/Highlights for Children/, if memory serves) that the one correct pronunciation
of "buoy" was that of "boy". But you said sailors would have carried on a
traditional pronunciation, and I'm saying that far from it, they've drastically
changed the pronunciation of several words.
Quite so. My original argument was directed at PTD's apparent suggestion
that "boy" was a peculiar deformation of "boo-ee".
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
In the case of "buoy", I think given Latin boia, Spanish boya, French
boye, that "=boy" is exactly the form you would expect if the word was
borrowed from French. The sailors have simply inherited that without
material alteration.
I tried to find out when French <oy> started to be pronounced with a /w/,
but I failed. I'll take your word that it was after "boye" showed up in English.
I wouldn't take my word for it. I'd have to look up when the oi > we >
wa shift took place, both in Standard French and any dialects that might
have played a role in nautical borrowings. That certainly could have
been an explanation for "bwoy" and/or <buoy>.
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
Things are complicated by the fact that (it seems) the Dutch word was
also borrowed at about the same time. The Dutch could, I think, account
for the "boo-ee" pronunciation, and for the now-standard spelling. As
for "bwoy", it could be a spelling pronunciation of <buoy>, perhaps
motivated by a distaste for homophony.
Speaking of which, M-W gives "buoy" as "ˈbü-ē, ˈbȯi" ("booee, boy") but
"buoyant" as "ˈbȯi-ənt, ˈbü-yənt" ("boyant, booyant"). I'd say my experience
agrees that "booee" and "boyant" are the more common pronunciations
in the U.S. That's consistent with a distaste for homophony.
Another possible story is that "booee" disappeared for a couple centuries
and was revived as a spelling pronunciation and to avoid homophony. That's
one step more complicated, but it explains why we haven't seen any evidence
for a "booee" pronunciation from 1600 to the 20th century. Of course such
evidence might exist. (The only search I tried was for "buoy 'pronounced it'".)
Another argument against that story is that if a spelling pronunciation were
invented out of nothing, we might expect it to start with /bju/ like "Buick",
"bucolic", etc.
Yes. I looked at the online Wright's Dialect Dictionary but didn't find
anything of interest. Any of these pronunciations could easily have been
hiding out in regional English for a long time.
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-24 14:35:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations. "Fore-castle" and
"boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
I consider them the correct pronunciations too, and I was taught (by
/Highlights for Children/, if memory serves) that the one correct pronunciation
of "buoy" was that of "boy". But you said sailors would have carried on a
traditional pronunciation, and I'm saying that far from it, they've drastically
changed the pronunciation of several words.
Quite so. My original argument was directed at PTD's apparent suggestion
that "boy" was a peculiar deformation of "boo-ee".
OK, I think we agree.
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
In the case of "buoy", I think given Latin boia, Spanish boya, French
boye, that "=boy" is exactly the form you would expect if the word was
borrowed from French. The sailors have simply inherited that without
material alteration.
I tried to find out when French <oy> started to be pronounced with a /w/,
but I failed. I'll take your word that it was after "boye" showed up in English.
I wouldn't take my word for it. I'd have to look up when the oi > we >
wa shift took place, both in Standard French and any dialects that might
have played a role in nautical borrowings. That certainly could have
been an explanation for "bwoy" and/or <buoy>.
Thanks.
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
Things are complicated by the fact that (it seems) the Dutch word was
also borrowed at about the same time. The Dutch could, I think, account
for the "boo-ee" pronunciation, and for the now-standard spelling. As
for "bwoy", it could be a spelling pronunciation of <buoy>, perhaps
motivated by a distaste for homophony.
...
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Another possible story is that "booee" disappeared for a couple centuries
and was revived as a spelling pronunciation and to avoid homophony. That's
one step more complicated, but it explains why we haven't seen any evidence
for a "booee" pronunciation from 1600 to the 20th century. Of course such
evidence might exist. (The only search I tried was for "buoy 'pronounced it'".)
Another argument against that story is that if a spelling pronunciation were
invented out of nothing, we might expect it to start with /bju/ like "Buick",
"bucolic", etc.
Yes. I looked at the online Wright's Dialect Dictionary but didn't find
anything of interest. Any of these pronunciations could easily have been
hiding out in regional English for a long time.
Well, to clarify and confuse matters,

"Mr. Ellis has shown pretty conclusively that the original English pronunciation
of _oi_ was [Engl.] _ooee_. Our ancestors pronounced boy as an American
pronounces 'buoy,' _booee_. (In regard to this word _buoy_ I had always
supposed our pronunciation a pure Americanism, but Mr. Ellis says it is also
that of all nautical men in England. In ordinary English society the word is
pronounced exactly like _boy_."

[Sic on the lack of quotation marks or italics on the first "boy" and the lack of
a closing parenthesis.]

Charles Astor Bristed, "Some Notes on Ellis's Early English Pronunciation",
_Transactions of the American Philological Association_, 1871

https://books.google.com/books?id=2BU8AQAAMAAJ&pg=RA3-PA135

Certainly not what I had in mind.

Ellis did indeed say, "Nautical men constantly call _buoy_ (buui)," and
went on to say more about the word.

https://books.google.com/books?id=6hxiAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA133
--
Jerry Friedman
Ross Clark
2023-08-26 10:04:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
...
Post by Ross Clark
And by 1900 "=boy" is universal among sailors both Br and Am. Sailors
having regular need to refer to such things, you would think they would
have carried on a traditional pronunciation, rather than succumbed to
some modern affectation.
I agree with everything else you wrote, but not with this. Sailors are the
people who gave the world "fo'c'sle", "bosun", "t'gahns'l" (topgallant sail),
etc.
Yes, but I consider those the correct pronunciations. "Fore-castle" and
"boat-swain" are spelling pronunciations by landlubbers.
I consider them the correct pronunciations too, and I was taught (by
/Highlights for Children/, if memory serves) that the one correct pronunciation
of "buoy" was that of "boy". But you said sailors would have carried on a
traditional pronunciation, and I'm saying that far from it, they've drastically
changed the pronunciation of several words.
Quite so. My original argument was directed at PTD's apparent suggestion
that "boy" was a peculiar deformation of "boo-ee".
OK, I think we agree.
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
In the case of "buoy", I think given Latin boia, Spanish boya, French
boye, that "=boy" is exactly the form you would expect if the word was
borrowed from French. The sailors have simply inherited that without
material alteration.
I tried to find out when French <oy> started to be pronounced with a /w/,
but I failed. I'll take your word that it was after "boye" showed up in English.
I wouldn't take my word for it. I'd have to look up when the oi > we >
wa shift took place, both in Standard French and any dialects that might
have played a role in nautical borrowings. That certainly could have
been an explanation for "bwoy" and/or <buoy>.
Thanks.
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Post by Ross Clark
Things are complicated by the fact that (it seems) the Dutch word was
also borrowed at about the same time. The Dutch could, I think, account
for the "boo-ee" pronunciation, and for the now-standard spelling. As
for "bwoy", it could be a spelling pronunciation of <buoy>, perhaps
motivated by a distaste for homophony.
...
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Another possible story is that "booee" disappeared for a couple centuries
and was revived as a spelling pronunciation and to avoid homophony. That's
one step more complicated, but it explains why we haven't seen any evidence
for a "booee" pronunciation from 1600 to the 20th century. Of course such
evidence might exist. (The only search I tried was for "buoy 'pronounced it'".)
Another argument against that story is that if a spelling pronunciation were
invented out of nothing, we might expect it to start with /bju/ like "Buick",
"bucolic", etc.
Yes. I looked at the online Wright's Dialect Dictionary but didn't find
anything of interest. Any of these pronunciations could easily have been
hiding out in regional English for a long time.
Well, to clarify and confuse matters,
"Mr. Ellis has shown pretty conclusively that the original English pronunciation
of _oi_ was [Engl.] _ooee_. Our ancestors pronounced boy as an American
pronounces 'buoy,' _booee_. (In regard to this word _buoy_ I had always
supposed our pronunciation a pure Americanism, but Mr. Ellis says it is also
that of all nautical men in England. In ordinary English society the word is
pronounced exactly like _boy_."
[Sic on the lack of quotation marks or italics on the first "boy" and the lack of
a closing parenthesis.]
Charles Astor Bristed, "Some Notes on Ellis's Early English Pronunciation",
_Transactions of the American Philological Association_, 1871
https://books.google.com/books?id=2BU8AQAAMAAJ&pg=RA3-PA135
Certainly not what I had in mind.
Ellis did indeed say, "Nautical men constantly call _buoy_ (buui)," and
went on to say more about the word.
https://books.google.com/books?id=6hxiAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA133
Oy. This is not so much fun any more. A serious mess.

Contra Mr Bristed, I'm pretty sure not all "oi"'s were formerly "ooee"'s.

My contribution to the closing ceremony will be from Jespersen (Modern
English Grammar, Part I).

3.7 /oi/, /o·i/, /ui/, /u·i/, /iui/

Here he lists 38 oy-words for which he finds pronunciation evidence in
one or more of his four 16th-17th century sources (Hart, Mulcaster,
Bullokar, Gill). For about half of them he finds no evidence for
anything but /oi/ (e.g. toy, joy, noise, voice, oil, spoil, avoid,
royal...). For the rest, varying opinions including one or more of the
other pronunciations listed above.

On the one (or two) we have been most concerned with:

boy: /boi, buoi, bue:/
"Oi, in boy, we sound (as the French dooe) woë: for whereas they
write bois, soit, droit; they say bwoes, swoet, drwoet." (Butler,
English Grammar, 1633)

buoy: /buei, bu·i/

Further comment (12.64): "W is sometimes subjoined to the labial
consonants p,b, especially before open o, as in pot, boy, boil, etc.,
which sound as if they were written pwot, bwoy, bwoil, etc. -- but this
is done neither always, nor by all." (Wallis, Grammatica Lingvuae
Anglicanae, 1653, my translation from the Latin)

So there's evidence of a /bwoi/ pronunciation for both boy and buoy.
Good night.
Jerry Friedman
2023-08-26 14:25:09 UTC
Permalink
...
Post by Ross Clark
Post by Jerry Friedman
Well, to clarify and confuse matters,
"Mr. Ellis has shown pretty conclusively that the original English pronunciation
of _oi_ was [Engl.] _ooee_. Our ancestors pronounced boy as an American
pronounces 'buoy,' _booee_. (In regard to this word _buoy_ I had always
supposed our pronunciation a pure Americanism, but Mr. Ellis says it is also
that of all nautical men in England. In ordinary English society the word is
pronounced exactly like _boy_."
[Sic on the lack of quotation marks or italics on the first "boy" and the lack of
a closing parenthesis.]
Charles Astor Bristed, "Some Notes on Ellis's Early English Pronunciation",
_Transactions of the American Philological Association_, 1871
https://books.google.com/books?id=2BU8AQAAMAAJ&pg=RA3-PA135
Certainly not what I had in mind.
Ellis did indeed say, "Nautical men constantly call _buoy_ (buui)," and
went on to say more about the word.
https://books.google.com/books?id=6hxiAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA133
Oy. This is not so much fun any more. A serious mess.
Contra Mr Bristed, I'm pretty sure not all "oi"'s were formerly "ooee"'s.
I was thinking on similar lines.
Post by Ross Clark
My contribution to the closing ceremony will be from Jespersen (Modern
English Grammar, Part I).
3.7 /oi/, /o·i/, /ui/, /u·i/, /iui/
Here he lists 38 oy-words for which he finds pronunciation evidence in
one or more of his four 16th-17th century sources (Hart, Mulcaster,
Bullokar, Gill). For about half of them he finds no evidence for
anything but /oi/ (e.g. toy, joy, noise, voice, oil, spoil, avoid,
royal...). For the rest, varying opinions including one or more of the
other pronunciations listed above.
boy: /boi, buoi, bue:/
"Oi, in boy, we sound (as the French dooe) woë: for whereas they
write bois, soit, droit; they say bwoes, swoet, drwoet." (Butler,
English Grammar, 1633)
buoy: /buei, bu·i/
Further comment (12.64): "W is sometimes subjoined to the labial
consonants p,b, especially before open o, as in pot, boy, boil, etc.,
which sound as if they were written pwot, bwoy, bwoil, etc. -- but this
is done neither always, nor by all." (Wallis, Grammatica Lingvuae
Anglicanae, 1653, my translation from the Latin)
So there's evidence of a /bwoi/ pronunciation for both boy and buoy.
Good night.
Thanks, it is now clear that "buoy" and "boy" have always or never been
pronounced by various people with various forward-gliding vowels, as
a result of which the modern pronunciations of "buoy" are what they
are.
--
Jerry Friedman
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 09:54:07 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.

In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
This is not unusual, many medieval words had lost their
final semi-mute last syallable. (poorte -> poort)

'Boei' verb 'boeien' is also used for many things
that limit mobility in some way, like 'handboeien' (E. hand cuffs)

Also figuratively, for 'captures or holds the attention'.
'Boeiend' -> 'Captivating'.

And from there, back to two syllables,
as denigrating exclamation: 'Boeie!'
for English 'don't care', 'of no interest', 'don't want to know'.

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-22 14:45:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
You think all things Dutch are superior to all things anything else.
(An alternative gets it from French, see Jerry's quote.)
Post by J. J. Lodder
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
This is not unusual, many medieval words had lost their
final semi-mute last syallable. (poorte -> poort)
The only question was how to pronounce MD boeye.
Post by J. J. Lodder
'Boei' verb 'boeien' is also used for many things
that limit mobility in some way, like 'handboeien' (E. hand cuffs)
Also figuratively, for 'captures or holds the attention'.
'Boeiend' -> 'Captivating'.
And from there, back to two syllables,
as denigrating exclamation: 'Boeie!'
for English 'don't care', 'of no interest', 'don't want to know'.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-22 18:05:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
Maybe Ross could check his collection of pronouncing-dictionaries
to see when BrE altered the pronunciation of the borrowed word.
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
You think all things Dutch are superior to all things anything else.
(An alternative gets it from French, see Jerry's quote.)
Yes, you are crazy about that, no need to reiterate,

Jan
Dingbat
2023-08-24 02:09:30 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-24 09:26:37 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
The spoken length in Dutch can be quite variable.
If your 'u' is like the 'u' in but, no,

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-24 14:06:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
The spoken length in Dutch can be quite variable.
If your 'u' is like the 'u' in but, no,
It's not "his u." It's standard phonetic notation.

As in "boot." Not as in "Uganda" or "Ukraine," which begin with [j].
Dingbat
2023-08-25 23:58:56 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
Post by J. J. Lodder
The spoken length in Dutch can be quite variable.
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Post by J. J. Lodder
If your 'u' is like the 'u' in but, no,
I was writing in ASCII IPA where [u] is never like in BUT.
phil
2023-08-26 08:30:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
Post by J. J. Lodder
The spoken length in Dutch can be quite variable.
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Unless you're in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme
with boot.
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
If your 'u' is like the 'u' in but, no,
I was writing in ASCII IPA where [u] is never like in BUT.
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 14:22:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by phil
Post by Dingbat
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Unless you're in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme
with boot.
What does "boot" rhyme with? Is it [bu:t] or bUt]?
phil
2023-08-26 15:51:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by phil
Post by Dingbat
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Unless you're in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme
with boot.
What does "boot" rhyme with? Is it [bu:t] or bUt]?
Yes, sorry, sloppiness on my part. They don't rhyme properly anyway.
What I should have said is that in some parts of Lancashire cook, look,
hook, etc have the [u:] as in boot.
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 17:05:51 UTC
Permalink
Post by phil
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by phil
Post by Dingbat
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Unless you're in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme
with boot.
What does "boot" rhyme with? Is it [bu:t] or bUt]?
Yes, sorry, sloppiness on my part. They don't rhyme properly anyway.
What I should have said is that in some parts of Lancashire cook, look,
hook, etc have the [u:] as in boot.
That's what the rest of us understood.
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 21:06:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by phil
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by phil
Post by Dingbat
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Unless you're in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme
with boot.
What does "boot" rhyme with? Is it [bu:t] or bUt]?
Yes, sorry, sloppiness on my part. They don't rhyme properly anyway.
What I should have said is that in some parts of Lancashire cook, look,
hook, etc have the [u:] as in boot.
That's what the rest of us understood.
Only because you know what a parts-of-Lancashire accent sounds like.
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-27 07:29:42 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
On 2023-08-26 15:51:20 +0000, phil said:> > On 26/08/2023 15:22, Peter
T. Daniels wrote:> >> On Saturday, August 26, 2023 at 4:30:51 AM UTC-4,
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.>
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be>
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in>
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no>
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.> >>> Unless you're
in parts of Lancashire, where cook, look, hook, etc rhyme> >>> with
boot.> >> What does "boot" rhyme with? Is it [bu:t] or bUt]?> > Yes,
sorry, sloppiness on my part. They don't rhyme properly anyway.> > What
I should have said is that in some parts of Lancashire cook, look,> >
hook, etc have the [u:] as in boot.
That's what the rest of us understood.
Only because you know what a parts-of-Lancashire accent sounds like.
Well, it's true that I spent about ten years of my childhood living in
Greater Manchester, but it's not that. Any normal educated person with
some capacity to understand English can immediately deduce what is
meant on rqding something that isn't quite right.
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 09:17:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
The English words that do start with Oo... are all O-ö....., really.
(afaik)
And the English U... words go to Duth Oe..., like Ukase -> Oekase.
(with the subtle pronunciation difference that you noted)
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The spoken length in Dutch can be quite variable.
It's not always possible to show spoken length in transliteration.
I'd respell Windhoek as <Windhook> the <oo> in which would be
pronounced in English like the [U] in BOOK, not like the [u:] in
BOOT. If Windhook has a vowel like in BOOT, I can think of no
way to reproduce that in an English respelling.
Correct, the South African 'oe' is still Dutch-like.
Conversely, can you guess where 'Zandhoek' could be found?
(if not in Amsterdam)

Jan
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 09:40:19 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
--
athel -- biochemist, not a physicist, but detector of crackpots
phil
2023-08-26 09:46:55 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Oodles?
(Can you have just one oodle?)
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 15:17:58 UTC
Permalink
Post by phil
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Oodles?
(Can you have just one oodle?)
After posting I remembered a perfectly good everyday example: ooze.
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
lar3ryca
2023-08-27 04:39:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by phil
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Oodles?
  (Can you have just one oodle?)
After posting I remembered a perfectly good everyday example: ooze.
oops.. ooh! Also oozy, but that one's way out there; in the Oort colud.
--
I'd give my right arm to be ambidextrous.
Dingbat
2023-08-27 06:10:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by lar3ryca
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by phil
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Tamil name: Udagaimandalam, English name: Ootacamund.
Short Tamil name: Udagai, Short English name: Ooty
The Tamil name is its original name before the British loused it up.
It's now called Ooty or less commonly Udagai, in Tamil.
Post by lar3ryca
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by phil
Oodles?
(Can you have just one oodle?)
An oodle is the offspring of a poodle bred with another breed of dog:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/oodle
Post by lar3ryca
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
After posting I remembered a perfectly good everyday example: ooze.
oops.. ooh! Also oozy, but that one's way out there; in the Oort colud.
I'd give my right arm to be ambidextrous.
You'd end up saying, "Gosh, I'm gauche."
musika
2023-08-26 10:23:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Ooze that?
--
Ray
UK
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 15:18:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by musika
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Ooze that?
Sorry. Preplagiarized again.
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 20:19:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by musika
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
Ooze that?
Sorry. Preplagiarized again.
Have an Ouzo. It has the same opening sound
as oozing, in my pronunciation,

Jan
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 11:47:19 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me
aback a while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables,
but also sounds like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables,
and sounding almost like the American version.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
If your 'u' is like the U in Uganda, Ukraine, or the 'oo' in boot, yes.
Then, I'm right. Thanks.
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
That's far away, but yes, 'oozing' and 'oodles' are good examples.
I should have looked in a dictionary first,
(and known better)

Jan
--
' .... lies a body, oozing blood' (Mac the Knife)
Peter Moylan
2023-08-26 12:17:24 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
That's far away, but yes, 'oozing' and 'oodles' are good examples.
I should have looked in a dictionary first,
(and known better)
Should we count Über, the company that tried to drive taxis out of business?
--
Peter Moylan http://www.pmoylan.org
Newcastle, NSW
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-27 07:55:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter Moylan
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
That's far away, but yes, 'oozing' and 'oodles' are good examples.
I should have looked in a dictionary first,
(and known better)
Should we count Über, the company that tried to drive taxis out of business?
Not for me.
It would have the Dutch UU sound, -IF- it was spelled as Über.
However, it isn't, it is Uber, without the umlaut.

when spelled 'Uber' the usual Dutch pronunciation
would still be with the U sound. (like 'Uren' for example)

But the Dutch do not recognise it as such,
and take it as a foreign word.
The usual Dutch Dutch pronunciation will be 'oe'-like, I guess,
like they pronouce German 'Uber'. (without the umlaut)

Forvo leads me to believe that Americans do put on the umlaut,
while pronouncing it as if it isn't there.

Others will know better,

Jan
Phil Carmody
2023-08-26 17:31:09 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
My 'umami' fits the bill. 'Ooze' too.
Oops!

Phil
--
We are no longer hunters and nomads. No longer awed and frightened, as we have
gained some understanding of the world in which we live. As such, we can cast
aside childish remnants from the dawn of our civilization.
-- NotSanguine on SoylentNews, after Eugen Weber in /The Western Tradition/
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 18:50:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by Phil Carmody
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
My 'umami' fits the bill. 'Ooze' too.
I don't say umami very often. Indeed I'm not sure I've ever said it out
loud, but if I did I'd agree with you.
Post by Phil Carmody
Oops!
Phil
--
athel cb : Biochemical Evolution, Garland Science, 2016
Peter Moylan
2023-08-27 01:41:13 UTC
Permalink
Post by Phil Carmody
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
My 'umami' fits the bill. 'Ooze' too.
Oops!
My "oops" has a different vowel.
--
Peter Moylan http://www.pmoylan.org
Newcastle, NSW
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-27 07:55:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter Moylan
Post by Phil Carmody
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by J. J. Lodder
I was under the impression that there are no English words
that start with a true ish Engl'oo' (so Dutch 'oe') sound.
I haven't managed to think of one (yet), but if you accept Ooty, the
English name of Ootacamund, as a word, then it's an example.
My 'umami' fits the bill. 'Ooze' too.
Oops!
My "oops" has a different vowel.
Dutch 'oeps' has a very short 'oe' sound.
And FYA, the Dutch 'oe' sound is associated
with things that are stupid or ridiculous.

An 'Oen' is an extremely stupid person.
The mock names taken by places during 'carnaval'
like 'Oeteldonk' have more than the expected share of the oe,

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 14:20:37 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dingbat
FYI, the English pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine are deviant;
How are they "deviant"? What's the name of the letter?

Every word in M-W11C that begins with the syllable u- (monoliteral)
begins with [j], with two exceptions (that happen to be adjacent): the
recent borrowing umami and the old borrowing Umayyad. (So do a
few other words, like "use.")

(I did not read all the <un> pages to hunt for gems like "unanimous.")
Post by Dingbat
they start with [jU]. So, you mean the native and/or the German/
Dutch pronunciations of Uganda & Ukraine.
bil...@shaw.ca
2023-08-25 22:00:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.

bill
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-26 07:25:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
On Tuesday, August 22, 2023 at 3:24:12 PM UTC+5:30, J. J. Lodder
Post by J. J. Lodder
On Monday, August 21, 2023 at 1:38:31?PM UTC-4, occam wrote:> > >> > >
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a>
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also
sounds> > > > like a different word to the ear.> > > >> > > > Today I
learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and> > > >
sounding almost like the American version.> > > >> > > > Could this be
the explanation for the difference in pronunciation> > > > between AmE
and BrE?> > >
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch> > >
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages> > derive
from Dutch.> >> > In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one
syllable.>> That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system,
You surprise me. Maybe I'm confusing you with another Canadian of Dutch
origin in Vancouver who several years ago recommended using the
International Phonetic Alphabet for representing pronunciation.
Post by ***@shaw.ca
so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
bill
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 09:17:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
The American pronunciation of 'buoy' (on Star Trek) took me aback a
while back. The AmE version is not only two syllables, but also sounds
like a different word to the ear.
Today I learned the French for 'buoy': 'bouée'. Two syllables, and
sounding almost like the American version.
Could this be the explanation for the difference in pronunciation
between AmE and BrE?
This will tickle JJ. M-W11C says it's probably from Middle Dutch
_boeye_ (clearly two syllables, whatever the vowels may have been).
What is supposed to be tickling about that?
It is hardly news that many nautical words in many languages
derive from Dutch.
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
I'm like Owl in WthP.
I can read phonetic when I know what it spells,

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 14:09:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-26 20:19:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
Clueless, as usual.
Is it really impossible for you to understand
that other people's brains may work in different ways?

Jan
Peter T. Daniels
2023-08-26 21:08:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
Clueless, as usual.
Is it really impossible for you to understand
that other people's brains may work in different ways?
Not about learning how to pronounce letters.

Every one of them managed to do it when they were five years old
or younger.
Silvano
2023-08-26 21:40:54 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
Hahahahahaha! It's not like it's hard to understand that people with
different native languages read a handful of letters more often that not
in different ways.

Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder)
sch in schiavo (as pronounced by me)
Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a native German)
Athel Cornish-Bowden
2023-08-27 07:34:04 UTC
Permalink
Post by Silvano
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
Hahahahahaha! It's not like it's hard to understand that people with
different native languages read a handful of letters more often that not
in different ways.
Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder)
sch in schiavo (as pronounced by me)
Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a native German)
Not to mention

sch in school (as pronounced by me, in which sch may represent the same
sound as in your schiavo, but my Italian isn't good enough for me to be
certain).
--
Athel -- French and British, living in Marseilles for 36 years; mainly
in England until 1987.
Peter Moylan
2023-08-27 07:49:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by Silvano
Post by Peter T. Daniels
On Wednesday, August 23, 2023 at 7:09:34?PM UTC-7, Dingbat
On Tuesday, August 22, 2023 at 3:24:12?PM UTC+5:30, J. J.
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I
can't say whether you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters
and how to read them.
Hahahahahaha! It's not like it's hard to understand that people
with different native languages read a handful of letters more
often that not in different ways.
Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder) sch in schiavo
(as pronounced by me) Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a
native German)
Not to mention
sch in school (as pronounced by me, in which sch may represent the
same sound as in your schiavo, but my Italian isn't good enough for
me to be certain).
Not quite. In English, the [k] in "school" is further back in the throat
than the [k] in "ski", although most of us don't notice the difference
most of the time. I don't have much Italian either, but I think
"schiavo" starts the same way as "ski".

(But I agree that the other examples given my Silvano don't even contain
a k-sound.)
--
Peter Moylan http://www.pmoylan.org
Newcastle, NSW
Silvano
2023-08-27 08:26:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter Moylan
Post by Athel Cornish-Bowden
Post by Silvano
Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder) sch in schiavo
(as pronounced by me) Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a
native German)
Not to mention
sch in school (as pronounced by me, in which sch may represent the
same sound as in your schiavo, but my Italian isn't good enough for
me to be certain).
Not quite. In English, the [k] in "school" is further back in the throat
than the [k] in "ski", although most of us don't notice the difference
most of the time. I don't have much Italian either, but I think
"schiavo" starts the same way as "ski".
Perhaps. I should listen to you saying "ski" and "school", but probably
I wouldn't notice the difference between them and/or to my "schiavo".
J. J. Lodder
2023-08-27 07:55:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Silvano
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say whether
you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and how
to read them.
Hahahahahaha! It's not like it's hard to understand that people with
different native languages read a handful of letters more often that not
in different ways.
Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder)
That will depend on which language I try to speak.
(with the word embedded in a sentence in it)
It seems to be impossible to make people understand
that there is no such thing as -the- Dutch pronunciation
of that sch... sound.
Most native speakers of Dutch don't have that harsh gutteral
pronunciation that is supposed to be it,
some are even incapable of doing it like that.
Post by Silvano
sch in schiavo (as pronounced by me)
Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a native German)
Again, there is no such thing as -the- native German pronunciation.

As for the supposed 'Scheveningen' test:
afaik there is no evidence that it was ever applied
to real German soldiers during the failed invasion on May 10, 1940.

It was (perhaps) used for self-reassurance by Dutch troops.
In the early hours of the invasion there were rumours that
German troops operated in false Dutch army or police uniforms,
So it happened that some of the Dutch were shooting at each other.
All this was soon sorted out, the Dutch got organised, [1]
and the Battle of The Hague ended in a painful German defeat.

Jan

[1] The surprise and disorganisation isn't too surprising.
The Dutch faced the first major airborne military operation of all time.
Silvano
2023-08-27 08:29:49 UTC
Permalink
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Silvano
Sch in Scheveningen (as pronounced by J.J. Lodder)
That will depend on which language I try to speak.
(with the word embedded in a sentence in it)
It seems to be impossible to make people understand
that there is no such thing as -the- Dutch pronunciation
of that sch... sound.
Most native speakers of Dutch don't have that harsh gutteral
pronunciation that is supposed to be it,
some are even incapable of doing it like that.
How do they pronounce Scheveningen?
Post by J. J. Lodder
Post by Silvano
sch in schiavo (as pronounced by me)
Sch in Schauspieler (as pronounced by a native German)
Again, there is no such thing as -the- native German pronunciation.
In general terms you're right, but I can't imagine a native German
saying Schauspieler with an initial sk.

Peter Moylan
2023-08-27 01:49:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by Peter T. Daniels
Post by ***@shaw.ca
Post by Dingbat
Post by J. J. Lodder
In modern Dutch it has become just 'boei', one syllable.
That looks like [buj] or [bu:j]. Am I right?
I don't use that (or any) phonetic spelling system, so I can't say
whether you're right or not.
Why not? It's not like it's hard to learn a handful of letters and
how to read them.
I'm very used to Kirshenbaum IPA, but one thing I can never get right is
the difference between /u/ and /U/. That is, I know what the difference
is, but I never know which is which.
--
Peter Moylan http://www.pmoylan.org
Newcastle, NSW
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