Post by ctIs there any difference between -ification and -ization ? Are there
any rules I should follow on using -ification instead of -ization?
-ificati- comes from the Latin verb "facere", to make, sometimes
through French and sometimes as a direct borrowing from scientific
Late Latin.
-iz- comes from the Greek verb-forming suffix "-izein", through Latin
and usually but not always French; "-izein" verbs in Greek became
"-izare" verbs in Latin, and "-are" verbs became "-er" verbs in French
and form nominals in "-ation".
There are, however, many neologisms featuring both of these affixes,
which have nothing to do with any Greek or Latin heritage, and other
than some English-speaker's perception of euphony there is no rhyme or
reason for the choice between them.
-GAWollman
--
Garrett A. Wollman | What intellectual phenomenon can be older, or more oft
***@bimajority.org| repeated, than the story of a large research program
Opinions not shared by| that impaled itself upon a false central assumption
my employers. | accepted by all practitioners? - S.J. Gould, 1993